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James Wane

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  1. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Language

    Why are the British confused about us calling bread rolls “biscuits” when they call bread rolls “puddings”?

    Martin Hope Enlightened
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 2:07 am

    They might be as confused as to why you keep calling pudding “biscuits”. Step out of your own cultural context for a minute. You do not own English, and there is no reason that the way it is used elsewhere should be understandable to you, or vice versa. If anyone had rights to the language, for thatRead more

    They might be as confused as to why you keep calling pudding “biscuits”.

    Step out of your own cultural context for a minute. You do not own English, and there is no reason that the way it is used elsewhere should be understandable to you, or vice versa. If anyone had rights to the language, for that matter, it sort of makes sense that it would be English people, right?

    But that doesn’t really matter. English is the first language of millions of people around the globe, and the second language of maybe billions. Not only each disparate group out there using it, but actually each person within each group uses it differently. This is the nature of language–it is dynamic. It grows, evolves, regionalizes, incorporates words from other languages, and changes to meet unique cultural context.

    It is not the role of English people to account to you for their use and understanding of their own language.

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  2. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Language

    Why are the British confused about us calling bread rolls “biscuits” when they call bread rolls “puddings”?

    Best Answer
    Marko Smith Enlightened
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 2:07 am

    I have never heard a British person EVER call a bread roll a `pudding`. We DO have arguments….mostly of a regional nature. I`ve heard bread rolls called both baps and barmcakes, for instance. But never, ever, a `pudding`. You are misinformed. Or perhaps you are confusing the term with something elseRead more

    I have never heard a British person EVER call a bread roll a `pudding`.

    We DO have arguments….mostly of a regional nature. I`ve heard bread rolls called both baps and barmcakes, for instance. But never, ever, a `pudding`. You are misinformed.

    Or perhaps you are confusing the term with something else…dessert, afters, or whatever you call the sweet course in the US.

    I have many times had a nice scone for pudding. `Pudding `being a common ( if now dated) term used for the second course. It is not the name of the confectionary itself, though, but an indication that it follows the main, usually savoury, course.

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  3. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Language

    Why are the British confused about us calling bread rolls “biscuits” when they call bread rolls “puddings”?

    Barry Carter Pundit
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 2:07 am

    Calling a bread roll a “biscuit” really takes the biscuit. The word comes from French, meaning “twice cooked” (bis – cuit). Are bread rolls twice cooked? Of course modern biscuits aren’t twice cooked either but they were originally. As far as I know no Briton calls a bread roll a pudding, though weRead more

    Calling a bread roll a “biscuit” really takes the biscuit. The word comes from French, meaning “twice cooked” (bis – cuit). Are bread rolls twice cooked? Of course modern biscuits aren’t twice cooked either but they were originally.

    As far as I know no Briton calls a bread roll a pudding, though we do call them lots of other things in different parts of the country, e.g. Baps, Stotties, Buns, Rolls, Bin Lids, Cobs, Batches, Bulkies, Barms, Teacakes, Butties, Nudgers and Blaas (not a complete list).

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  4. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Language

    Why are the British confused about us calling bread rolls “biscuits” when they call bread rolls “puddings”?

    John Peter Explainer
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 2:07 am

    Most British people understand that the English and American English have drifted slightly away, so that we have different definitions of words. Now, to the British people who insists our naming is incorrect, they need to understand that our language is not the same. Please don’t try to tell me thatRead more

    Most British people understand that the English and American English have drifted slightly away, so that we have different definitions of words.

    Now, to the British people who insists our naming is incorrect, they need to understand that our language is not the same. Please don’t try to tell me that we speak the same language, because in all honesty we don’t. However, our languages are incredibly similar.

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  5. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Language

    How do native speakers tell I’m foreign based on my English alone?

    Barry Carter Pundit
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 2:03 am

    You probably have strange grammar. Pretty much every language has a different grammar style than English, as far as I know. Don’t know Malaysian, so I can’t answer that specific part. But based on your question, you have better grammar than most on the internet. So that could be it, that you’re “tooRead more

    You probably have strange grammar. Pretty much every language has a different grammar style than English, as far as I know. Don’t know Malaysian, so I can’t answer that specific part. But based on your question, you have better grammar than most on the internet. So that could be it, that you’re “too perfect.” Could be an accent, too. Or idioms, those things are pretty funny.

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  6. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Language

    How do native speakers tell I’m foreign based on my English alone?

    John Peter Explainer
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 2:03 am

    It may be little things like not using native idioms, that you would pick up from living in the UK. But, hey. That’s just a guess. Also, I don’t think I would’ve noticed you were foreign from what you wrote, if you didn’t point it out.

    It may be little things like not using native idioms, that you would pick up from living in the UK.

    But, hey. That’s just a guess.

    Also, I don’t think I would’ve noticed you were foreign from what you wrote, if you didn’t point it out.

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  7. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Language

    Is this statement, “i see him last night” can be understood as “I saw him last night”?

    Marko Smith Enlightened
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 2:01 am

    You are correct that both are understandable. The only other possible everyday meaning I could think of would be ‘I see him [in my mind’s eye] last night’; that is, I am, at this very moment, imagining him last night. But it should almost always be clear from context which one is intended. ‘Correct’Read more

    You are correct that both are understandable.

    The only other possible everyday meaning I could think of would be ‘I see him [in my mind’s eye] last night’; that is, I am, at this very moment, imagining him last night. But it should almost always be clear from context which one is intended.

    ‘Correct’ doesn’t mean ‘understandable’, though. If I say ‘Me want have fooding’ it’s pretty clear what to understand from that, but it’s not anywhere near correct Standard English grammar. If you lived somewhere where you spoke a dialect of English in which this was acceptable grammar, however, then it would be correct for that dialect.

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  8. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Language

    Is this statement, “i see him last night” can be understood as “I saw him last night”?

    Barry Carter Pundit
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 2:01 am

    There is a certain poetic sense in which “I see” works. “I see him last night in my dreams” although not technically correct. However, generally speaking “I saw” is the right usage for past events. Much prose writing in English novels is in the present tense although they are about past events. TheRead more

    There is a certain poetic sense in which “I see” works. “I see him last night in my dreams” although not technically correct. However, generally speaking “I saw” is the right usage for past events. Much prose writing in English novels is in the present tense although they are about past events. The author superimposes himself however on the situation as if it were the present.

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  9. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Language

    Is this statement, “i see him last night” can be understood as “I saw him last night”?

    John Peter Explainer
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 2:00 am

    Yes, I understand it. I hear a lot of this incorrect grammar from my wife. I would expect that the person that spoke this was possibly Chinese. In Chinese there are no tenses or plurals. No he or she pronouns. The context tells all. So it might have been a direct translation from Chinese.

    Yes, I understand it. I hear a lot of this incorrect grammar from my wife. I would expect that the person that spoke this was possibly Chinese. In Chinese there are no tenses or plurals. No he or she pronouns. The context tells all. So it might have been a direct translation from Chinese.

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  10. Asked: April 19, 2022In: Analytics

    Google Analytics reads like a seismic chart lately

    Barry Carter Pundit
    Added an answer on April 19, 2022 at 1:59 am

    Yet another update?? Could be a refined version of the Feb 7 update that shook us up. Traffic went up and down and settled to near normal after about 10 days. But last seven days have not shown any change – if anything, traffic and page views have increased a little!

    Yet another update?? Could be a refined version of the Feb 7 update that shook us up. Traffic went up and down and settled to near normal after about 10 days. But last seven days have not shown any change – if anything, traffic and page views have increased a little!

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